Information Technology Act MCQ Quiz in বাংলা - Objective Question with Answer for Information Technology Act - বিনামূল্যে ডাউনলোড করুন [PDF]

The correct answer is 'Section 66A'.

Key Points

• Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015):
  • This landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as unconstitutional.
  • Section 66A criminalized the sending of offensive messages through communication services, including social media and email. The provision was criticized for being vague and overly broad.
  • The Court ruled that Section 66A violated the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
  • The judgment emphasized that laws restricting free speech must be clear, specific, and narrowly tailored to serve legitimate government interests without disproportionately affecting individual rights.
  • The decision was lauded for upholding democratic principles and protecting citizens' rights in the digital age.
• Overview of the other sections:
  • Section 66B: This section deals with receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices dishonestly. It is unrelated to the issue of free speech and was not challenged in the Shreya Singhal case.
  • Section 66C: This provision pertains to identity theft and the fraudulent use of digital signatures, passwords, or other unique identification features. It was not challenged or deemed unconstitutional in the case.
  • Section 66D: This section addresses cheating by personation using computer resources. It deals with cyber fraud and was not a part of the Shreya Singhal judgment.
• Significance of the judgment:
  • The case set a precedent for safeguarding free speech in the digital sphere and curbing arbitrary restrictions on online expression.
  • It highlighted the importance of judicial scrutiny in preventing abuse of laws that could suppress dissent or restrict legitimate expression.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

• Section 43A Overview:
  • Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, addresses the protection of sensitive personal data or information.
  • It mandates that entities handling sensitive personal data must implement "reasonable security practices and procedures" to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, or destruction of such data.
  • Failure to implement these practices can result in liability for damages caused due to negligence.
• Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures:
  • These practices are defined as methods or protocols specified in agreements, contracts, applicable laws, or guidelines prescribed by the Central Government.
  • The Central Government may define these standards through notifications or rules, ensuring companies adopt robust measures to protect data.
  • Organizations may also follow internationally recognized standards, such as ISO/IEC 27001, if required by law or agreements.
• Incorrect Options:
  • Security protocols based on international ISO standards only: While ISO standards are internationally recognized and often used, Section 43A does not limit "reasonable security practices" solely to ISO standards. It encompasses practices specified by contracts, laws, or government-prescribed guidelines.
  • Any informal agreement between the company and users: Informal agreements do not qualify as "reasonable security practices" under Section 43A. The security measures must be formally specified in contracts or laws and must meet prescribed standards.
  • Antivirus installations only: Installing antivirus software is a part of security measures, but it is not sufficient on its own to meet the comprehensive requirements of "reasonable security practices and procedures." A holistic approach involving multiple layers of security is needed.

The correct answer is 'Anonymity'

Key Points

• Anonymity over the internet:
  • Anonymity refers to the ability to hide one’s identity while using the internet.
  • This feature can be exploited by cyber stalkers to avoid being identified or traced, thus providing them a shield from legal consequences.
  • Cyber stalkers often use techniques such as masking IP addresses, using Virtual Private Networks (VPNs), or employing anonymous browsing tools to maintain their anonymity.
  • The lack of proper identification mechanisms on certain online platforms allows malicious actors to commit offenses without fear of immediate detection.
  • Anonymity is a double-edged sword—it protects privacy but also enables misuse, making it a central concern in cybercrime investigations.

Additional Information

• Explanation of other options:
  • Connectivity:
    • Connectivity refers to the ability to access and connect to the internet or other networks.
    • While connectivity facilitates communication and access to information, it does not shield cyber stalkers from legal consequences.
  • IP address:
    • An IP address is a unique identifier for devices connected to a network.
    • Instead of shielding cyber stalkers, IP addresses are often used by law enforcement to trace and identify offenders.
  • Anti-virus:
    • Anti-virus software is designed to protect devices from malware and other security threats.
    • It plays no role in shielding cyber stalkers, as it is a defensive tool for users to safeguard their systems.

The correct answer is Option 1

Key Points Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with compensation for failure to protect data. It specifically states that if a body corporate, while possessing or handling sensitive personal data or information, is negligent in implementing and maintaining reasonable security practices, and that negligence causes wrongful loss or wrongful gain to any person, the body corporate is liable to pay damages by way of compensation.

Hence, the focus of Section 43A is clearly on protecting the personal data of individuals.

The correct answer is The person in whose favor the license was issued faces potential punishment

Key Points

• Section 33 of the It Act deals with the surrender of license.
• When a Certifying Authority's license is suspended or revoked, it must immediately surrender the license to the Controller.
• Failure to surrender the license after suspension or revocation makes the person in whose favor the license was issued guilty of an offense.
• The potential punishment for this offense includes imprisonment for up to six months or a fine that may extend up to ten thousand rupees, or both.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• As per section 27 of the IT Act, the Controller has the ability, in writing, to delegate these powers to specific individuals within the organization.
• These individuals include the Deputy Controller, Assistant Controller, or any other officer appointed by the Controller.
• Once authorized in writing by the Controller, these designated individuals gain the authority to exercise any of the powers vested in the Controller within that particular Chapter. This authorization allows them to act on behalf of the Controller. 

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

•  Section 3A of the IT Act deals with the electronic signature and it outlines the criteria for considering an electronic signature or authentication technique as reliable:
  • The signature or authentication technique should be linked solely to the signatory or authenticator and to no other person.
  • It must be under the control of the signatory or authenticator and no other person at the time of signing.
  • Any alterations made after affixing the signature or authenticating the information should be detectable.
  • Any alterations made after the information's authentication by the electronic signature should also be detectable.
  • Additionally, it should fulfill any other conditions as prescribed.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Section 79 of the IT Act 2000 deals with the exemption from liability of intermediary.
• According to section 79(2) of the act, an intermediary is not liable if their function is limited to providing access, they do not initiate or select the transmission, and they observe due diligence and prescribed guidelines. 
• An intermediary refers to any entity that facilitates the transmission, storage, or hosting of information provided by third parties. This could include internet service providers (ISPs), social media platforms, web hosting companies, search engines, and other online service providers

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Section 42 of the IT Act 2000 deals with the control of Private Key.
• Section 42(2) of IT Act says, if the private key corresponding to the public key listed in the Digital Signature Certificate has been compromised, then, the subscriber shall communicate the same without any delay to the Certifying Authority in such manner as may be specified by the regulations. 
• In simpler words, in case of a compromised private key corresponding to the public key in a Digital Signature Certificate, the subscriber is obligated to inform the Certifying Authority without delay, following the manner specified by regulations. This action ensures appropriate steps can be taken to mitigate risks associated with the compromised key.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Section 23 of the IT Act 2000 deals with the Renewal of licence.
• An application for renewal of a licence shall be-
  • (a) in such form,
  • (b) accompanied by such fees, not exceeding five thousand rupees, as may be prescribed by the Central Government and shall be made not less than forty-five days before the date of expiry of the period of validity of the licence