Microbiology In Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Microbiology In Nursing - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jul 4, 2025
Latest Microbiology In Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
Microbiology In Nursing Question 1:
What is the rationale for pre-treating microbiology laboratory waste before incineration or landfill disposal?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Prevent transmission of drug-resistant pathogens
Microbiology In Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Prevent transmission of drug-resistant pathogens
Rationale:
- Pre-treating microbiology laboratory waste is essential to prevent the transmission of drug-resistant pathogens. This waste often contains biological materials, including bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms that may harbor antibiotic resistance.
- Drug-resistant pathogens pose a serious public health threat as they can spread through improper disposal methods such as incineration or landfill without pre-treatment. This could potentially contaminate the environment, water sources, or even the air.
- Pre-treatment methods, such as autoclaving, chemical disinfection, or sterilization, ensure that the pathogens are neutralized, rendering the waste biologically safe before final disposal.
- This step reduces the risk of cross-contamination and protects both human health and the ecosystem from exposure to harmful microorganisms.
Explanation of Other Options:
Reduce plastic burden
- Rationale: While reducing plastic burden is a valid environmental concern, it is not the primary reason for pre-treating microbiology laboratory waste. Laboratory waste often includes biological materials rather than solely plastics, and the focus of pre-treatment is on neutralizing pathogens rather than addressing plastic content.
Enhance combustion efficiency
- Rationale: Pre-treatment does not significantly impact combustion efficiency. The incineration process is designed to handle various types of waste, including untreated biological waste, but without pre-treatment, pathogens may remain intact and pose risks.
Reduce color contamination in landfill soil
- Rationale: The coloration of landfill soil is not a key concern in the context of microbiology laboratory waste. Pre-treatment addresses biological hazards, not aesthetic or physical characteristics like color contamination.
Conclusion:
- Pre-treating microbiology laboratory waste is a crucial step in mitigating the transmission of drug-resistant pathogens, which is the primary rationale for this practice. Other options, while addressing different aspects of waste management, do not address the core issue of pathogen inactivation and environmental safety.
Microbiology In Nursing Question 2:
Which of the following combinations best meets the WHO criteria for a safe sharps container in a high-risk infectious disease ward?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Leak-proof, puncture-resistant, labeled with biohazard symbol
Microbiology In Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Leak-proof, puncture-resistant, labeled with biohazard symbol
Rationale:
- The World Health Organization (WHO) emphasizes the importance of safe sharps containers in high-risk infectious disease wards to prevent injuries, contamination, and the spread of infection. Such containers must meet specific criteria to ensure both safety and functionality.
- A sharps container that is leak-proof prevents accidental exposure to infectious fluids. Puncture resistance ensures that sharp objects like needles and scalpels cannot penetrate the container walls, reducing the risk of injury. Labeling with the biohazard symbol clearly identifies the container as a receptacle for hazardous materials, ensuring proper handling and disposal.
- These features collectively address the critical requirements for safety in high-risk environments, as outlined by international health and safety guidelines, including WHO standards.
Explanation of Other Options:
Transparent, puncture-resistant, foot-operated
- Rationale: While puncture resistance is an essential feature, transparency is not a required characteristic for sharps containers as per WHO standards. In fact, opaque containers are preferred to conceal the contents and reduce psychological distress. Foot-operated mechanisms are more relevant for general waste bins and do not directly address the specific safety needs for sharps disposal in infectious disease wards.
Rigid, colorless, autoclavable
- Rationale: Rigid containers are important to maintain structural integrity, but the colorless feature is not relevant to WHO standards. Containers should ideally be color-coded to signify biohazardous material. While autoclavable materials allow for sterilization, this feature is not a substitute for the leak-proof, puncture-resistant, and biohazard-labeled criteria.
Plastic, sealed with lid, located near pharmacy
- Rationale: While plastic sharps containers are commonly used, the additional features listed here do not adequately meet WHO standards. Sealing with a lid is important but does not address puncture resistance or leak-proof design. Additionally, the location near a pharmacy is not a safety criterion but rather a logistical consideration that does not inherently improve the safety of the container.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, "Leak-proof, puncture-resistant, labeled with biohazard symbol" best meets the WHO criteria for safe sharps containers in high-risk infectious disease wards. These features are critical for preventing injuries and contamination while ensuring proper identification and disposal of hazardous materials.
Microbiology In Nursing Question 3:
A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called ________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Carrier
Microbiology In Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Carrier
Rationale:
- A carrier is a person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease without showing any symptoms of the disease themselves. These individuals can unknowingly spread the pathogen to others, serving as a source of infection in the population.
- Carriers play a significant role in the transmission of infectious diseases, as they may not be aware of their infection and continue their normal activities, potentially infecting others.
- Carriers can be classified into different types based on the duration and stage of infection, such as asymptomatic carriers, convalescent carriers (individuals recovering from the disease but still spreading it), and chronic carriers (those who harbor the pathogen for an extended period).
- Examples of diseases where carriers are important include typhoid fever (caused by Salmonella typhi, with "Typhoid Mary" being a famous historical example), hepatitis B, and certain sexually transmitted infections.
Explanation of Other Options:
Host
- Rationale: A host is an organism (human, animal, or plant) that provides a suitable environment for a pathogen to grow, reproduce, and survive. While all carriers are hosts, not all hosts are carriers because some hosts show symptoms of the disease.
- The term "host" is more general and includes both symptomatic and asymptomatic individuals as well as non-human organisms.
Reservoir
- Rationale: A reservoir refers to the habitat where a pathogen lives, grows, and multiplies. This can include living organisms (such as humans, animals, or insects) or non-living entities (such as soil, water, or food).
- Unlike a carrier, the term "reservoir" is broader and not limited to individuals who are asymptomatic. For example, bats can serve as reservoirs for viruses like rabies, and soil can be a reservoir for tetanus bacteria.
Agent
- Rationale: An agent in the context of infectious diseases refers to the microorganism (such as a virus, bacterium, fungus, or parasite) that causes the disease. For example, the agent of malaria is the Plasmodium parasite.
- An agent is not a person but the actual pathogen responsible for the disease.
Conclusion:
- A carrier is the correct term for a person who harbors disease-causing microorganisms without showing symptoms and can transmit the disease to others. The other options refer to related but distinct concepts in the context of infectious diseases.
Microbiology In Nursing Question 4:
In an individual Human Immunodeficiency virus infects __________ cell in the immune system.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : T helper cells
Microbiology In Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: T helper cells
Rationale:
- The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) specifically targets and infects T helper cells, which are a critical component of the immune system. These cells, also known as CD4+ cells, play a vital role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells, to fight infections.
- HIV binds to the CD4 receptor on the surface of T helper cells using its glycoprotein (gp120) and then fuses with the host cell membrane. Once inside the cell, the virus integrates its genetic material into the host DNA, hijacking the cell's machinery to produce more virus particles.
- The progressive loss of T helper cells due to HIV infection weakens the immune system, leaving the individual more susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers. This condition, when advanced, is known as Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).
Explanation of Other Options:
Dendritic cells
- Rationale: While HIV can infect dendritic cells, they are not the primary target of the virus. Dendritic cells play an important role in capturing HIV and presenting it to T helper cells, facilitating the spread of the virus. However, their infection rate is much lower compared to T helper cells.
Monocytes
- Rationale: Monocytes, which are precursors to macrophages and dendritic cells, can also be infected by HIV. However, they are not the main target of the virus. HIV infection in monocytes and macrophages contributes to chronic inflammation and viral reservoirs but is secondary to the infection of T helper cells.
Mast cells
- Rationale: Mast cells are not a primary target for HIV. These cells are primarily involved in allergic responses and do not play a significant role in the pathogenesis of HIV infection. Evidence suggests that HIV rarely infects mast cells.
Conclusion:
- The primary target of HIV in the human immune system is the T helper cells (CD4+ cells). The depletion of these cells leads to immune system dysfunction and progression to AIDS. While HIV may also infect dendritic cells, monocytes, and macrophages, these cells are not the main focus of the virus and play a secondary role in its pathogenesis.
Microbiology In Nursing Question 5:
The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Formation of exudate
Microbiology In Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Formation of exudate
Rationale:
- The complement system plays a crucial role in the inflammatory process by promoting opsonization, which is the process where pathogens are marked for destruction by phagocytes. This tagging enhances the ability of immune cells to recognize and eliminate foreign invaders effectively.
- During inflammation, the complement system contributes to the formation of exudate. Exudate refers to the fluid, proteins, and cells that escape from blood vessels into the surrounding tissues as part of the inflammatory response. The complement system triggers increased vascular permeability and recruits immune cells to the site of infection or injury, leading to the accumulation of exudate in the affected area.
- Opsonization specifically enhances phagocytosis, allowing immune cells such as neutrophils and macrophages to engulf and destroy pathogens more efficiently. The complement proteins, such as C3b, serve as opsonins, binding to the surface of microorganisms and making them more "visible" to immune cells.
- This process is integral to the formation of exudate, as the influx of immune cells and proteins (including complement) contributes to the localized immune response and tissue defense mechanisms.
Explanation of Other Options:
Vascular
- Rationale: While the complement system does influence vascular changes, such as increasing vascular permeability, its direct role in opsonization is more closely linked to cellular processes and the formation of exudate, rather than solely vascular responses. Vascular responses involve changes in blood flow and vessel permeability but are not the primary focus of complement-mediated opsonization.
Healing
- Rationale: Healing is a later stage of the inflammatory process, involving tissue repair and regeneration. The complement system primarily acts during the acute phase of inflammation, focusing on pathogen elimination and immune cell recruitment. Opsonization does not directly impact the healing process but rather sets the stage for effective immune defense.
Cellular
- Rationale: The complement system does interact with cellular components of the immune system, such as neutrophils and macrophages, through opsonization. However, the cellular response refers more broadly to immune cell activation, migration, and interaction. The formation of exudate, which involves cellular and fluid accumulation, is a more precise description of the complement system's role in opsonization.
Formation of exudate
- Rationale: As discussed, the complement system promotes the formation of exudate by enhancing opsonization, recruiting immune cells, and increasing vascular permeability. This accumulation of fluid, proteins, and immune cells at the site of inflammation is a hallmark of the inflammatory response.
Conclusion:
- The complement system's role in opsonization is most directly tied to the formation of exudate, as it facilitates pathogen elimination and immune cell recruitment, contributing to the localized inflammatory response and tissue defense.
Top Microbiology In Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
What is tested by the Schick test?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Diphtheria
Microbiology In Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFDiphtheria is a common infectious disease in India. Diphtheria is an acute communicable disease that affects the nose, throat, and tonsils. The bacilli multiply at the site of implantation (insertion into the body), be it the throat, nose, or tonsils. It produces local lesions at the site of implantation. This lesion is characterized by the formation of a patch or patches of greyish false-membrane on the affected parts such as the tonsils or larynx (voice box). It also produces an offensive and strong odor.
Important Points
Diphtheria Vaccination (Prevention and Management)
- The only effective way of preventing the disease is by active immunization by diphtheria toxoid to the general population.
- It is given as DPT or triple antigen along with immunization for whooping cough and tetanus.
- A booster is given one year after the third injection is given. For children over the age of six years, only DT containing diphtheria and tetanus toxoids is given.
- There is a test to find out individuals who are susceptible to diphtheria. This test is known as the Schick test. This test can also be used for confirmation of successful immunization.
- Penicillin and Erythromycin are effective but should be given along with the antitoxin.
- Transmission of diphtheria is through droplet infection or infected dust. of the cervical lymph glands.
- Immunization is the most effective way of preventing the disease.
Nosocomial infection means, which occure from:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Hospital
Microbiology In Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Hospital
Rationale:
- A nosocomial infection, also known as a hospital-acquired infection (HAI), refers to an infection that is acquired in a healthcare facility such as a hospital, nursing home, or clinic. These infections are not present or incubating at the time of the patient’s admission but occur after 48 hours or more of hospital stay.
- The primary sources of nosocomial infections include contaminated medical equipment, invasive procedures, improper hand hygiene, and the hospital environment itself. Common examples of nosocomial infections include urinary tract infections (often associated with catheters), surgical site infections, bloodstream infections, and pneumonia (often associated with ventilators).
- The risk of acquiring such infections is higher in individuals with weakened immune systems, those undergoing invasive procedures, or those with prolonged hospital stays.
Explanation of Other Options:
Community
- Rationale: Infections acquired in the community, known as community-acquired infections, are different from nosocomial infections. These infections occur outside healthcare settings and are present at the time of hospital admission. Examples include influenza, community-acquired pneumonia, and foodborne illnesses.
- Since nosocomial infections are specifically associated with healthcare environments, this option is incorrect.
Both
- Rationale: This option suggests that nosocomial infections can occur in both hospital and community settings, which is incorrect. By definition, nosocomial infections are limited to those acquired in healthcare settings, specifically hospitals or similar facilities.
- Community-acquired infections are distinct from nosocomial infections, making this option invalid.
None
- Rationale: This option implies that nosocomial infections do not occur in any setting, which is inaccurate. Nosocomial infections are a well-documented concern in healthcare environments, particularly hospitals, due to the presence of vulnerable patients and invasive medical procedures.
- Since nosocomial infections are specifically associated with hospitals, this option is incorrect.
Conclusion:
- Nosocomial infections are exclusively associated with hospitals and other healthcare facilities. They pose a significant risk to patients, particularly those with compromised immune systems or undergoing invasive procedures. Proper infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterilization of equipment, and antimicrobial stewardship, are essential to prevent these infections.
Dengu virus is a:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Arbo virus
Microbiology In Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Arbo virus
Rationale:
- The dengue virus is classified as an "Arbovirus," which stands for Arthropod-Borne Virus. These viruses are transmitted to humans through the bites of infected arthropods, such as mosquitoes, ticks, and other vectors.
- Dengue virus specifically belongs to the Flavivirus genus of the Flaviviridae family. It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.
- Dengue fever, caused by this virus, is a mosquito-borne tropical disease that can lead to severe flu-like symptoms and, in extreme cases, life-threatening complications such as dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome.
Additional Information:
- Dengue virus is widely prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions around the world, particularly in urban and semi-urban areas.
- There are four distinct serotypes of the dengue virus (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4). Infection with one serotype provides lifelong immunity to that serotype but not to the others, which increases the risk of severe complications upon subsequent infections.
- Preventive measures include vector control (eliminating mosquito breeding sites), use of insect repellents, and personal protective measures like wearing long sleeves and using mosquito nets. A vaccine, Dengvaxia, is available in some countries but has limitations based on prior exposure to the virus.
Explanation of Other Options:
Arelio virus
- Rationale: The term "Arelio virus" appears to be a misspelling or a fictional virus. No such virus exists in virology. This option is incorrect.
Aedes virus
- Rationale: Aedes is a genus of mosquitoes, not a virus. While Aedes mosquitoes are the primary vectors for the dengue virus, they themselves do not constitute a virus. This option is incorrect.
Chicken Gunia virus
- Rationale: The correct spelling is "Chikungunya virus," which is an entirely different virus that causes chikungunya fever. It is also transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes but belongs to the Alphavirus genus of the Togaviridae family. This option is incorrect as it refers to a different virus.
Conclusion:
- The dengue virus is best classified as an Arbovirus, as it is transmitted by arthropods such as mosquitoes. Understanding its classification and transmission mechanisms is critical for effective prevention and control strategies.
The gas which is used for the fumigation of operation theatre:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Formaldehyde
Microbiology In Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Formaldehyde
Rationale:
- Formaldehyde is a chemical compound widely used for fumigation in hospitals, particularly in operation theatres, due to its potent disinfectant and sterilizing properties. It effectively kills bacteria, viruses, fungi, and spores, ensuring a sterile environment for surgical procedures.
- Fumigation with formaldehyde involves the controlled release of the gas in a closed space to disinfect surfaces and air. It is typically used in concentrations suitable for sterilizing medical environments without damaging equipment.
- The process often requires sealing the operation theatre completely and then releasing formaldehyde gas. After fumigation, the area is ventilated thoroughly to remove residual gas before its reuse to ensure the safety of healthcare workers and patients.
- Formaldehyde is considered one of the most effective agents for sterilizing large spaces, especially where other methods like autoclaving or liquid disinfectants may not be feasible.
Explanation of Other Options:
Oxygen (O₂)
- Rationale: Oxygen is essential for life and plays a critical role in cellular respiration, but it is not used for fumigation or sterilization. While oxygen can support combustion, it does not possess disinfectant properties required to eliminate pathogens effectively.
Nitrogen
- Rationale: Nitrogen is an inert gas and does not have antimicrobial or sterilizing properties. It is typically used in industrial applications, such as creating an inert atmosphere, but not for fumigation of medical environments.
H₂O₂ (Hydrogen Peroxide)
- Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide is indeed a powerful disinfectant and is sometimes used in vaporized form for sterilizing operation theatres. However, it is less commonly used for fumigation compared to formaldehyde. Hydrogen peroxide may be preferred in certain situations due to its safer profile and lack of strong odor.
Conclusion:
- Formaldehyde is the correct choice for fumigation of operation theatres due to its proven efficacy in eliminating a wide range of pathogens. While other substances like hydrogen peroxide are also effective, formaldehyde remains the most commonly used agent for this purpose in many healthcare settings.
The most popular and useful method for sterilization is:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Autoclave
Microbiology In Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Autoclave
Rationale:
- An autoclave is the most popular and effective method for sterilization. It uses high-pressure saturated steam at a temperature of 121°C (250°F) for a specific duration, typically 15–20 minutes, depending on the size of the load. This process kills bacteria, viruses, fungi, and spores, ensuring complete sterilization.
- Autoclaves are widely used in medical, laboratory, and industrial settings due to their reliability in sterilizing surgical instruments, glassware, and other heat-resistant materials.
- The principle behind the autoclave is that steam penetrates the items being sterilized, transferring heat efficiently and killing microorganisms by denaturing their proteins and disrupting cellular structures.
- Modern autoclaves are equipped with safety features and control systems that allow precise temperature and pressure regulation, ensuring effective sterilization without damage to the items being sterilized.
- The autoclave is considered superior to other methods of sterilization because it eliminates even the most resistant spores, which other methods may fail to eradicate.
Explanation of Other Options:
Boiling
- Rationale: While boiling water can kill most bacteria and viruses, it is not effective in eliminating resistant spores. It also has limitations in terms of its application to heat-sensitive materials, making it less reliable for complete sterilization.
- Boiling is generally considered a disinfection method rather than a sterilization method because it does not provide the same level of microbial eradication as autoclaving.
Sunlight
- Rationale: Sunlight has natural disinfectant properties due to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, but it is not a reliable sterilization method. Its effectiveness depends on exposure duration and intensity, and it cannot penetrate surfaces or materials effectively.
- Sunlight may reduce microbial contamination on surfaces but cannot achieve complete sterilization, especially for medical or laboratory purposes.
Ionizing Radiation
- Rationale: Ionizing radiation, such as gamma rays or electron beams, is an effective sterilization method used in industrial settings for medical devices, pharmaceuticals, and food products. However, it is not as widely used as autoclaving in standard medical or laboratory settings due to its complexity and cost.
- While ionizing radiation is effective, it requires specialized equipment and is not as readily accessible as autoclaves.
Conclusion:
- Autoclaving is the most reliable and widely used method for sterilization, especially in healthcare and laboratory environments. It ensures the complete elimination of microorganisms, including resistant spores, making it indispensable for maintaining sterile conditions. Other methods like boiling, sunlight, and ionizing radiation have specific applications but lack the overall reliability and effectiveness of autoclaving.
Organism which are responsible to produce disease, are known as:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Pathogen
Microbiology In Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Pathogen
Rationale:
- Organisms that are responsible for causing diseases are referred to as pathogens. These include microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, as well as certain multicellular organisms like parasitic worms. Pathogens invade the host organism, disrupt normal bodily functions, and lead to disease.
- Pathogens can spread through various routes, including direct contact, contaminated food or water, air, and vectors like insects. They are a major focus of study in medical microbiology and epidemiology.
- The term "pathogen" is derived from the Greek words "pathos" (suffering) and "gen" (producer), signifying its role in producing disease.
- Examples of diseases caused by pathogens include influenza (virus), tuberculosis (bacteria), candidiasis (fungi), and malaria (protozoa).
Explanation of Other Options:
Glycogen
- Rationale: Glycogen is a polysaccharide that serves as the primary storage form of glucose in animals and humans. It is stored in the liver and muscles and is released as glucose when the body needs energy. It is not related to disease-causing organisms.
Lactogen
- Rationale: Lactogen refers to substances, such as hormones (e.g., prolactin), that promote milk production in mammals. It is associated with lactation and has no relation to disease-causing organisms.
Nitrogen
- Rationale: Nitrogen is a chemical element that is essential for the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids in living organisms. It plays a vital role in biological processes but is not a disease-causing organism.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the term "pathogen" accurately describes organisms responsible for causing diseases. Understanding pathogens is critical for developing strategies to prevent and treat infectious diseases.
In which condition high protein diet is given:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Malnutrition
Microbiology In Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Malnutrition
Rationale:
- A high-protein diet is essential for individuals suffering from malnutrition because protein is a macronutrient that plays a crucial role in growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues. Malnutrition is characterized by inadequate intake of nutrients, including protein, leading to muscle wasting, weakened immunity, and impaired physiological functions.
- Proteins provide the amino acids necessary for the synthesis of enzymes, hormones, and structural components of cells. In malnutrition, these processes are compromised, making a high-protein diet vital for recovery.
- A high-protein diet can also help restore muscle mass, improve wound healing, and support immune function, which are often impaired in malnourished individuals.
- It is commonly recommended for individuals suffering from conditions like protein-energy malnutrition (PEM), kwashiorkor, and marasmus.
Explanation of Other Options:
Uremia
- Rationale: Uremia is a condition caused by the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the blood due to kidney dysfunction. In this condition, a high-protein diet is generally avoided because the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete the byproducts of protein metabolism, such as urea. A low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the burden on the kidneys.
Jaundice
- Rationale: Jaundice is a condition characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes due to elevated bilirubin levels, often caused by liver dysfunction. While adequate nutrition is important, a high-protein diet is not specifically recommended for jaundice. In fact, protein intake may be moderated depending on the severity of liver dysfunction to avoid excessive strain on the liver.
All of the above
- Rationale: The option "All of the above" is incorrect because a high-protein diet is not suitable for conditions like uremia and jaundice. It is specifically recommended for malnutrition, as explained above.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, malnutrition is the condition where a high-protein diet is most beneficial. It plays a vital role in the recovery and rehabilitation of individuals suffering from inadequate nutrient intake. However, caution should be exercised in other conditions like uremia and jaundice, where high-protein diets might exacerbate the underlying issues.
Food hygiene is known as:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Maintain food clean chain
Microbiology In Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Maintain food clean chain
Rationale:
- **Food hygiene** refers to practices that ensure food is safe for consumption and free from harmful contaminants. One of the main principles of food hygiene is to **maintain a clean food chain** from the point of production through processing, storage, and distribution to consumption.
- **Maintaining the clean food chain** means **ensuring that food** remains free from contamination during every stage of handling, which includes **proper cleaning**, **storage**, and **handling procedures** at all levels in the food industry.
- **Food hygiene practices** prevent the risk of **foodborne diseases**, which can arise due to contamination with **bacteria**, **viruses**, or **parasites**, as well as **chemical** and **physical contaminants**. Ensuring that the food remains clean and uncontaminated at every step is essential for food safety.
Explanation of Other Options:
Cleaning of the food
- **Rationale**: **Cleaning food** is an essential part of food hygiene but is just one aspect of the broader concept of **food safety**. Cleaning food helps remove dirt, debris, and some contaminants, but it does not cover the entire process of preventing contamination across the **food chain** from production to consumption.
Improvement of sanitation
- **Rationale**: **Sanitation** is related to hygiene but focuses more on maintaining **clean environments** in food preparation and storage areas. While **sanitation** is vital to food hygiene, it does not fully encompass the broader practices needed to ensure food safety across the entire food chain.
None of the above
- **Rationale**: Since **maintaining the clean food chain** is the most comprehensive and correct description of food hygiene, **this option** is not accurate.
Conclusion:
- **Food hygiene** involves practices to ensure food safety by maintaining a **clean food chain** from the point of production to consumption. This includes effective **cleaning, sanitization, and food handling** practices at each stage to prevent contamination and foodborne diseases.
Microbiology In Nursing Question 14:
In following which test is done to find out susceptibility to scarlet fever
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Dick Test
Microbiology In Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Dick Test
Rationale:
- The Dick test is specifically designed to determine an individual's susceptibility to scarlet fever, which is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria producing erythrogenic toxin.
- In the Dick test, a small amount of diluted erythrogenic toxin is injected into the skin. If the person is susceptible (meaning they lack immunity), a red, inflamed area will develop at the injection site within 24 hours. If the person is immune, no significant reaction occurs.
Explanation of Other Options:
Schick Test
- Rationale: The Schick test is used to determine susceptibility to diphtheria by injecting a small amount of diphtheria toxin into the skin. It is not related to scarlet fever.
Mantoux Test
- Rationale: The Mantoux test (or tuberculin skin test) is used to detect latent tuberculosis infection by injecting purified protein derivative (PPD) under the skin. It is not related to scarlet fever.
Widal Test
- Rationale: The Widal test is a serological test used to diagnose enteric fever (typhoid and paratyphoid fever) by detecting antibodies against Salmonella bacteria in the blood. It is not related to scarlet fever.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the Dick Test is the correct test used to determine susceptibility to scarlet fever.
Microbiology In Nursing Question 15:
A person acquired immunity through vaccines, this type of immunity come into which group-
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Artificially acquired active immunity
Microbiology In Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Artificially acquired active immunity
Rationale:
- Artificially acquired active immunity refers to the immunity that is developed when a person is exposed to a vaccine containing a weakened or dead pathogen, or parts of the pathogen. This exposure stimulates the immune system to produce a response, including the creation of memory cells, which can quickly respond to future exposures to the pathogen.
- Vaccines work by mimicking the infection, causing the immune system to develop a defense (antibodies) against the pathogen without causing the disease itself. This is why vaccinated individuals can later fight off the actual pathogen more effectively if they are exposed.
Explanation of Other Options:
Artificially acquired passive immunity
- Rationale: This type of immunity is acquired by the transfer of antibodies or activated T-cells from an immune individual to a non-immune individual. This can happen through treatments like immunoglobulin therapy. It provides immediate but short-term protection because the body does not produce its own antibodies or memory cells.
Naturally acquired active immunity
- Rationale: This type of immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a live pathogen, contracts the disease, and then recovers. During the infection, the body produces a primary immune response, including the development of memory cells, leading to long-lasting protection against future infections by the same pathogen.
Naturally acquired passive immunity
- Rationale: This type of immunity is provided through natural means such as the transfer of maternal antibodies to the fetus through the placenta or to the infant through breast milk. This type of immunity provides immediate but temporary protection as the transferred antibodies eventually degrade and are not replaced.
Conclusion:
- Artificially acquired active immunity is the correct answer as it involves the immune system actively responding to a vaccine to develop long-term protection. This is different from passive immunity (both natural and artificial), where antibodies are provided directly, and natural active immunity, which involves actual infection and recovery.